Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 04:09
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why is my crush beautiful to me but not to others?
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
How long does it typically take for prices to return to normal after tariffs are removed?
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
How is Sola Scriptura incoherent?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?